It's absolutely ridiculous that this can even happen.
It should be simple.
1. If you don't own the home outright, are you the one under contract, making payments to a lending institution? If yes, then the house is 'yours'. If not, then get the fuck out.
2. If you own the home outright, you should have the deed. If you do, then the house is yours. If not, then get the fuck out.
So where's the problem and what legal precedent allows them to stall an eviction when their very occupation of the place was ruled illegal?
